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Apr 27, 2020 at 19:22 comment added Ivan Feshchenko If $\mathcal{F}_1\subset...\subset\mathcal{F}_n$, then the collection $\mathcal{F}_1,...,\mathcal{F}_n$ does not possess the IMP (if the $\sigma$-algebras are not trivial).
Apr 27, 2020 at 19:06 comment added Ivan Feshchenko For examples of collections of $\sigma$-algebras that possess the IMP see Section 5 of my paper "On the inverse best approximation property of systems of subspaces of a Hilbert space" (it is available on ArXiv).
Apr 27, 2020 at 19:02 comment added Ivan Feshchenko If $\mathcal{F_1}\subset\mathcal{F}_2\subset...\subset\mathcal{F}_n$, then the collection $\mathcal{F}_1,...,\mathcal{F}_n$ does not possess the IMP (if the probability space is not trivial). In fact, if $\xi_1,...,\xi_n$ are random variables that satisfy conditions (1),(2),(3) in the Question, then the needed $\xi$ exists if and only if $\xi_1,...,\xi_n$ is a martingale with respect to $\{\mathcal{F}_1,...,\mathcal{F}_n\}$. If this is the case, then one can take $\xi=\xi_n$.
Apr 27, 2020 at 18:57 comment added Ivan Feshchenko In the definition of the IMP the needed $\xi$ must exist for arbitrary random variables $\xi_1,...,\xi_n$ that satisfy (1), (2), (3) in the Question.
Apr 27, 2020 at 15:01 history answered zab CC BY-SA 4.0