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Apr 27, 2020 at 3:20 comment added Hacon More precisely, for a klt flip, it carries through iff $D\cdot \Sigma =0$ where $\Sigma$ is the flipping curve (else $D\cdot \Sigma >0$ and so $\overline{\pi(D)} \cdot \Sigma ^+<0$ where $\Sigma ^+$ is a flipped curve....if $D\cdot \Sigma=0$, use the base point free thm). This fact is important when running the mmp with scaling.
S Apr 26, 2020 at 23:45 history suggested Sophie M CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed dashed right arrow
Apr 26, 2020 at 23:17 review Suggested edits
S Apr 26, 2020 at 23:45
Apr 26, 2020 at 21:21 comment added Ennio Mori cone No, $\overline{\pi(D)}$ will typically have a non-empty base locus where it is negative - try to see what happens in the Atiyah flop..
Apr 26, 2020 at 21:16 history asked anonymous CC BY-SA 4.0