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user147204
user147204

Assume that there is no polynomialpolynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f\colon {\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection. Does this imply that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

Assume that there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f\colon {\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection. Does this imply that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

Assume that there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f\colon {\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection. Does this imply that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

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Tomasz Kania
Tomasz Kania
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ifAssume that there is no polynomial  $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$$f\colon {\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection,Does. Does this implies thatimply that there is no polynomial  $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

if there is no polynomial  $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection,Does this implies that there is no polynomial  $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

Assume that there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f\colon {\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection. Does this imply that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

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user147204
user147204

if there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection,Does this implies strongly that that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

if there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection,Does this implies strongly that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

if there is no polynomial $f(x,y)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bjiection,Does this implies that there is no polynomial $f(x,y,z)\in{\mathbb Q}[x,y,z]{}$ such that $f:{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\times{\mathbb Q}\to {\mathbb Q}$ is a bijection ?

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user147204
user147204