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Jun 5, 2022 at 19:44 comment added dohmatob Yes, by rotational invariance.
Jun 5, 2022 at 14:03 comment added lazyleo Does that mean $P(\vert U^\top z\vert>\delta) = P(\vert U_1\vert>\delta\Vert z\Vert) $?
Jun 5, 2022 at 13:49 history edited dohmatob CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 5, 2022 at 13:47 comment added dohmatob Well, precisely because $\|z\| = 1$ as in the theorem. I've made this more explicit.
Jun 5, 2022 at 13:09 comment added lazyleo I am confused that why does the equation (2) is independent of $norm(z)$.
Apr 20, 2020 at 6:57 history edited dohmatob CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 19, 2020 at 17:20 history answered dohmatob CC BY-SA 4.0