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Apr 18, 2020 at 10:22 history edited Dr. Pi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 18, 2020 at 1:57 comment added Gerry Myerson "the said authors"???
Apr 18, 2020 at 0:31 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Yes, this is just the matter of continuity. The above calculation is the usual trick for the Fourier transform, re-written in terms of the Mellin transform.
Apr 17, 2020 at 23:57 comment added Dr. Pi Great, it works! How could you have predicted that the terms would cancel out without looks at the specific formulas? Edit: i guess this only has to do with the fact that $f$ is continuous.
Apr 17, 2020 at 23:19 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki OK, that was a little bit too fast; but the idea is the same: integrate by parts twice on each interval $(t_{j-1}, t_j)$ where $f$ is linear. The terms with $(i \log x)^{-1} f(t_j) x^{i t_j}$ cancel out, the terms $(i \log x)^{-2} f'(t_j) x^{i t_j}$ are $O(N^{-1} (\log x)^{-2})$, and what remains is an integral involving $f'' = 0$.
Apr 17, 2020 at 23:15 comment added Dr. Pi Thanks! Can I ask what happens with $f''(t)$ when $t$ is near the points of discontinuouity?
Apr 17, 2020 at 23:12 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki Integrate by parts twice, to get $(i \log x)^{-2} \int_{\mathbb R} f''(t) x^{it} dt$.
Apr 17, 2020 at 23:06 history asked Dr. Pi CC BY-SA 4.0