[Update 29 March | After your elucidation in the comments below, I feel I can give:]
Some remarks for Question 2:
a) An important example concerns axioms of choice. In constructivism (BISH, INT, RUSS) there are a number of choice axioms which may or may not conflict with each other and/or CLASS, depending on the precise phrasing and of course the intended logical strength.
In general, constructivists do not understand your second questiondismiss all forms of the idea that the statement for all $x$ there is $y$ such that $P(x,y)$ implies the existence of a choice function $f$ such that $P(x, f(x))$ holds for all $x$.
But the difference with CLASS (or between the others) can still be quite sharp, could you perhaps elucidatebecause of the very different interpretation of what is a bit in'meaningful' statement.
For a constructivist, 'meaningful' usually implies that we are talking about mathematical structures that can be constructed like (and therefore from !) the lightnatural numbers $\mathbb{N}$, if we give ourselves enough time to do so. (Strict finitism is also a field of study in constructive mathematics, but since this is quite difficult it has not attracted many researchers).
In classical mathematics, a theory is often considered 'meaningful' already if we have good reason to believe that the above answertheory is consistent. Whether the theory describes structures that we can actually build from scratch (viz. $\mathbb{N}$) is often not a matter of interest.
Strong intuitionistic axioms of choice sometimes expose this huge philosophical difference by leading to question 1theorems which are false in CLASS, but sometimes they also lead to INT having the 'same' theorem as in CLASS (and you can only tell the difference by carefully interpreting the difference in meaning).
b) Another important example (also) concerns 'information' and 'interpretation'. Very very often, contradiction between CLASS and INT or RUSS can be meaningfully avoided by rephrasing. For example, by changing 'for all $x$' (CLASS) into 'for all $x$ for which we can determine whether $x\geq 0$ or $x\leq 0$' (INT), we might obtain the 'same' theorem.
This is imho a most salient point that Bishop added to Brouwer's views: why look for contradiction if you can rephrase for accordance?
However, imho it can also be very clarifying to study these contradictions. Usually one learns better how to rephrase for accordance when one has a clear idea where the conflict arises...