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Mar 21, 2020 at 9:48 vote accept Frederik Ravn Klausen
Mar 19, 2020 at 12:53 answer added Nik Weaver timeline score: 1
S Mar 19, 2020 at 11:55 history suggested gmvh CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected obvious typos and added some punctuation
Mar 19, 2020 at 11:46 review Suggested edits
S Mar 19, 2020 at 11:55
Mar 19, 2020 at 10:45 comment added Frederik Ravn Klausen Yes, we complete with respect to the norm coming from the inner product in the tensor product.
Mar 18, 2020 at 20:28 comment added LSpice I believe that $\mathcal F^{-1}\phi$ lies in $\ell^2(\mathbb Z \times \mathbb Z)$, but that properly contains the ordinary vector-space product of $\ell^2(\mathbb Z) \otimes \ell^2(\mathbb Z)$. Did you mean some kind of completed vector product?
Mar 18, 2020 at 20:27 comment added Frederik Ravn Klausen And this is supposed to be the norm of $\phi$ in the space $\otimes_{r \in \mathbb{Z}} L^2( \lbrack 0, 2 \pi \rbrack) $.
Mar 18, 2020 at 20:25 comment added Frederik Ravn Klausen Well, I might be wrong but here is my take. The norm of a vector in $l^2(\mathbb{Z}) \otimes l^2(\mathbb{Z}) $ I calculate as $\vert\vert a \vert \vert = \sum_{k,j} \vert a_{k,j} \vert^2$ and hence $ \vert \vert \mathcal{F}^{-1} \phi \vert \vert = \sum_{x,y} \vert \int_0^{2 \pi} e^{ikx} \phi(k, x-y) dk \vert^2 = \sum_{x,y} \int_0^{2\pi} \int_0^{2\pi} dk dk' e^{i(k-k')x} \vert \phi(k,x-y) \vert^2 $. Now $\sum_{y} \vert \phi(k,x-y) \vert^2 $ is independent of $x$ and then the sum over $x$ of $e^{i(k-k')x}$ collapses one into to yield $\int_0^{2\pi} dk \sum_{n} \vert \phi(k,n) \vert^2 $.
Mar 18, 2020 at 19:52 comment added LSpice Why does $\mathcal F^{-1}\phi$ live in $\ell^2(\mathbb Z) \otimes \ell^2(\mathbb Z)$? Is that meant to be some sort of completed tensor product? (This probably has to do with what you mean by 'basis', too.)
Mar 18, 2020 at 19:41 history asked Frederik Ravn Klausen CC BY-SA 4.0