Timeline for $| f_n |^p - | f |^p - | f_n-f |^p$ converges in distribution sense if $f_k$ converges almost everywhere and weakly to $f$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Mar 22, 2020 at 18:39 | comment | added | Isaac | @Michael Renardy Could you help me with this question as well if possible? mathoverflow.net/questions/355072/… | |
Mar 19, 2020 at 16:49 | comment | added | Giorgio Metafune | @Michael Renardy Very nice solution. Then it works also for $p=1$. | |
Mar 18, 2020 at 21:30 | comment | added | Isaac | Thank you for your powerful answer; and I am taking a PDE class using yours as one of the textbooks. Thank you for the nice textbook too :) | |
Mar 18, 2020 at 19:38 | comment | added | Michael Renardy | Yes, I am the author of a PDE text. | |
Mar 18, 2020 at 19:01 | vote | accept | Isaac | ||
Mar 18, 2020 at 17:07 | comment | added | Isaac | Are you perhaps the author of a PDE textbook??? | |
Mar 18, 2020 at 16:31 | history | answered | Michael Renardy | CC BY-SA 4.0 |