Timeline for $| f_n |^p - | f |^p - | f_n-f |^p$ converges in distribution sense if $f_k$ converges almost everywhere and weakly to $f$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 18, 2020 at 19:01 | vote | accept | Isaac | ||
| Mar 18, 2020 at 16:31 | answer | added | Michael Renardy | timeline score: 2 | |
| Mar 17, 2020 at 1:20 | answer | added | Nate Eldredge | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 16, 2020 at 23:10 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | I would if I knew the answer! | |
| Mar 16, 2020 at 23:10 | comment | added | Isaac | Can you please provide answer for the case where $f_k$ converges to $f$ almost everywhere as well as weakly? It seems like a very deep result... | |
| Mar 16, 2020 at 23:08 | comment | added | Nate Eldredge | Oh, I see my mistake. Thanks. | |
| Mar 16, 2020 at 23:06 | comment | added | Isaac | For $p=4$, with $f=1$, $| f_n |^p - | f |^p - | f_n-f |^p$ does not converge to $0$ in the distribution sense. | |
| Mar 16, 2020 at 18:44 | history | asked | Isaac | CC BY-SA 4.0 |