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Mar 18, 2020 at 15:58 comment added user267839 Thank you very much. A side remark: with same conditions as above for $X,Y$ and $f$ we can moreover say that $f^* \colon H^0(Y,\mathcal{L}) \to H^0(X,f^*\mathcal{L})$ is always injective. what we need I think is that $Y$ is reduced & $f$ dominant
Mar 17, 2020 at 10:43 comment added Sasha @user7391733: I included an explanation to this question in the answer.
Mar 17, 2020 at 10:42 history edited Sasha CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 17, 2020 at 10:12 comment added user267839 Yes, I understand. But why the surjectivity of $H^0(Y,\mathcal{L}) \otimes \mathcal{O}_Y \to \mathcal{L}$ (=regularity, as you said) follows from surjectivity of $f$? I not see it.
Mar 16, 2020 at 15:43 comment added Sasha Because regularity is equivalent to surjectivity of the morphism $H^0(Y,\mathcal{L}) \otimes \mathcal{O}_Y \to \mathcal{L}$, which, by Nakayama lemma, is enough to check only at closed points.
Mar 16, 2020 at 13:56 comment added user267839 One question on your argument why rational $Y \to \mathbb{P}(H^0(Y,\mathcal{L})^\vee)$ becomes regular: that's clear pure set theoretically: $f$ is surjective, so we can assign to every $y \in Y$ the image of arbitrary $x \in f^{-1}(y)$ under composition $X \to \mathbb{P}(H^0(X,f^*\mathcal{L})^\vee) \to \mathbb{P}(H^0(Y,\mathcal{L})^\vee)$ simply by "going another way around". Why that (at first glace) pure set theoretical assignment gives rise for regular $Y \to \mathbb{P}(H^0(Y,\mathcal{L})^\vee)$ mapping as morphism or category of schemes?
Mar 16, 2020 at 13:47 vote accept user267839
Mar 16, 2020 at 13:20 history answered Sasha CC BY-SA 4.0