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Mar 15, 2020 at 21:56 history edited Augusto Santi CC BY-SA 4.0
Added some other notes.
Mar 13, 2020 at 1:06 comment added GH from MO @GjergjiZaimi: I think this question is slightly different. I suspect that there exists a prime $p$ such that $a_n$ is never prime, but probably we will never be able to decide this.
Mar 13, 2020 at 0:40 vote accept Augusto Santi
Mar 13, 2020 at 0:01 comment added Gjergji Zaimi Notice that we can't even establish the infinitude of primes of the form $n^2+1$, let alone with the added condition of $n$ being a power of $p-1$.
Mar 12, 2020 at 23:47 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 9
Mar 12, 2020 at 23:30 history asked Augusto Santi CC BY-SA 4.0