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Mar 10, 2020 at 13:10 vote accept gp1
Mar 10, 2020 at 4:00 history became hot network question
Mar 9, 2020 at 21:46 comment added GH from MO I explained in the previous remark what's going on. Bailleul explained the same in more detail (see his response). The point is to consider real values $s$ initially, then half-planes afterwards.
Mar 9, 2020 at 21:46 comment added Wojowu @GHfromMO I see, thanks. I didn't quite realize Lemma 15.1 is crucial for this part of the argument.
Mar 9, 2020 at 21:43 comment added GH from MO @Wojowu: Initially, the LHS is only analytic in a neighborhood of the real interval $(\Theta-\varepsilon,\infty)$. So the RHS has analytic continuation to a neighborhood of the real interval $(\Theta-\varepsilon,\infty)$, hence by Lemma 15.1, also to the half-plane $\Re(s)>\Theta-\varepsilon$. It follows that the LHS is analytic in the half-plane $\Re(s)>\Theta-\varepsilon$, which contradicts the definition of $\Theta$.
Mar 9, 2020 at 21:21 answer added A. Bailleul timeline score: 8
Mar 9, 2020 at 20:08 comment added gp1 @Wojowu, yes. But as you can see in that proof, the initial equation was defined for $\Re(s)>1$, but then was extended to $\Re(s) > \Theta - \epsilon$. It seems they did this by applying the identity theorem for holomorphic functions (?), which requires both sides of the equation to be analytic for $\Re(s) > \Theta - \epsilon$
Mar 9, 2020 at 20:01 comment added Wojowu Consider the displayed equation just below (15.3). The LHS is clearly analytic for $\Re(s)>\Theta-\varepsilon$.
Mar 9, 2020 at 20:00 review First posts
Mar 9, 2020 at 20:09
Mar 9, 2020 at 19:56 history asked gp1 CC BY-SA 4.0