Skip to main content
edited tags
Link
Ian Morris
  • 6.2k
  • 2
  • 31
  • 64
tweaked formatting/spelling
Source Link
Yemon Choi
  • 25.8k
  • 9
  • 69
  • 156

Why isn't the theorem of approximation not appicableapplicable in banach-spacesBanach spaces?

Let X be a hilbert-spaceHilbert space, A a convex, closed subset of X. Then there exists for every x in X exactly one best approximation in A, that is there exists a y in A such that || x-y || = d(x,A) = inf { || x-z || : z in A}.

Why isn't that theorem true for banach-spacesBanach spaces?

Why isn't the theorem of approximation not appicable in banach-spaces?

Let X be a hilbert-space, A a convex, closed subset of X. Then there exists for every x in X exactly one best approximation in A, that is there exists a y in A such that || x-y || = d(x,A) = inf { || x-z || : z in A}.

Why isn't that theorem true for banach-spaces?

Why isn't the theorem of approximation applicable in Banach spaces?

Let X be a Hilbert space, A a convex, closed subset of X. Then there exists for every x in X exactly one best approximation in A, that is there exists a y in A such that || x-y || = d(x,A) = inf { || x-z || : z in A}.

Why isn't that theorem true for Banach spaces?

Source Link

Why isn't the theorem of approximation not appicable in banach-spaces?

Let X be a hilbert-space, A a convex, closed subset of X. Then there exists for every x in X exactly one best approximation in A, that is there exists a y in A such that || x-y || = d(x,A) = inf { || x-z || : z in A}.

Why isn't that theorem true for banach-spaces?