There’s also an “invariant definability” argument. I’ll sketch it quickly below, and then give an analysis to explain why I think it’s meaningfully different. Embarrassingly I can't find a source for it at the moment; I recall seeing it as a footnote in Kreisel's Kreisel's model-theoretic invariants paperModel-theoretic invariants paper, but it doesn't seem to be there. Multiple authors have written on invariant definability (which this answer is not-so-secretly an advertisement of) so I haven't yet been able to conduct an exhaustive search for the reference, but when I find it I'll update this. Incidentally, this argument was referred to at the beginning of another answer of mine.
Of course, this is also a feature of the many standard computability-theoretic arguments. I think there’s still a difference here - this time a positive one - due to the way the Tarskian argument interacts with the notion of invariant definability. There are a couple ways to frame this - see e.g. the beginning of the article this article by MoschovakisAbstract Computability and Invariant Definability by Moschovakis for some discussion - and I'll use the following: