Timeline for Is there a strictly increasing differentiable function maps positively measurable set to zero measure set?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
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| Feb 25, 2020 at 15:58 | comment | added | Gro-Tsen | Furthermore, if you modify your construction just a little bit to make $g$ be a positive $C^\infty$ “bump” on each interval (connected component) of the complement of $C$, with all derivatives tending to $0$ at the edges of the interval, and with the height of the bumps tending fast enough to $0$, you can get $g$ hence $f$ to be both $C^\infty$, still with the same property. | |
| Feb 25, 2020 at 12:55 | history | edited | John Bentin | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 25, 2020 at 0:06 | vote | accept | XT Chen | ||
| Feb 24, 2020 at 22:59 | history | edited | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 24, 2020 at 21:37 | comment | added | Mateusz Kwaśnicki | In case one needs a paper reference, virtually the same construction is carried out in Real Analysis Exchange 22(1) (1996-97): 404–405 by Javier Fernández de Bobadilla de Olazabal. | |
| Feb 24, 2020 at 17:55 | history | edited | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 24, 2020 at 17:23 | history | edited | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 24, 2020 at 17:15 | history | undeleted | Piotr Hajlasz | ||
| Feb 24, 2020 at 17:15 | history | edited | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 24, 2020 at 14:28 | history | deleted | Piotr Hajlasz | via Vote | |
| Feb 24, 2020 at 14:26 | history | undeleted | Piotr Hajlasz | ||
| Feb 24, 2020 at 14:24 | history | deleted | Piotr Hajlasz | via Vote | |
| Feb 24, 2020 at 14:24 | history | edited | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 24, 2020 at 14:15 | history | answered | Piotr Hajlasz | CC BY-SA 4.0 |