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Feb 21, 2020 at 11:09 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 21, 2020 at 9:43 comment added sharpe Thank you for your kind reply. I have a question on it. In the proof, you assume that $f$ is smooth, right? In your definition, "smooth" is $C^1(\overline{D})$? I am also considering the regularity of eigenfunctions of the Neumann Laplacian and the Neumann semigroup. Hence, it is inconvenient to assume that f is smooth in advance.
Feb 20, 2020 at 16:51 history answered Denis Serre CC BY-SA 4.0