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Feb 18, 2020 at 3:08 history edited Flyingpanda
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Feb 18, 2020 at 2:28 comment added Flyingpanda The second answer should be no, the morphism $X′\to X$ should be toroidal around the divisors with coefficient one. Thank you! This is exactly what I need. Could you please offer a reference or something? The term "toroidal" is really confusing to me..
Feb 17, 2020 at 17:54 comment added Joaquín Moraga What about $\mathbb{A}^2$ with the two lines, and then you blow-up $(x,y^n)$? So I think the answer to the first one is yes. The second answer should be no, the morphism $X'\rightarrow X$ should be toroidal around the divisors with coefficient one.
Feb 17, 2020 at 12:07 history asked Flyingpanda CC BY-SA 4.0