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Feb 28, 2021 at 0:27 comment added Iosif Pinelis @BLBA : That's right.
Feb 27, 2021 at 13:13 comment added ABIM The argument should work for $W_p$ for any $p\in [1,\infty)$ no?
Oct 23, 2020 at 18:38 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Elbebe : No, I don't know any reference to this. You can cite MathOverflow questions and answers by click on the "cite" buttons below them.
Oct 23, 2020 at 14:40 comment added ABIM Is this a well-known result? That is, do you know a citeable reference to this?
Jun 18, 2020 at 0:14 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Zorn'sLama : That's right.
Jun 18, 2020 at 0:14 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Dirk : That's right.
Jun 17, 2020 at 20:48 comment added ABIM If I'm not mistaken this argument works for any mixtures in $W_2$ no?
Feb 12, 2020 at 8:21 comment added Dirk Also note that this argument works for any cost function!
Feb 12, 2020 at 2:57 comment added Raghav Thanks! Yes, I realised that we can not hope for $\lambda_i^2$ in the right hand side. I could finally get the result with $\lambda_i$ but your argument is neater.
Feb 12, 2020 at 2:55 vote accept Raghav
Feb 12, 2020 at 2:43 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 12, 2020 at 2:34 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0