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Aug 14, 2010 at 20:25 history edited Torsten Asselmeyer-Maluga CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 14, 2010 at 20:19 comment added Torsten Asselmeyer-Maluga Yes, you are right but I was not sure. I edited the answer. Thanks for the comment.
Aug 13, 2010 at 15:39 comment added Andy Putman I don't understand this answer. Why do you need a fancy theorem to conclude that an exotic $\mathbb{R}^4$ is homeomorphic to a standard $\mathbb{R}^4$? Isn't that the definition?
Aug 13, 2010 at 13:29 history edited Torsten Asselmeyer-Maluga CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 12, 2010 at 7:41 history edited Torsten Asselmeyer-Maluga CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 11, 2010 at 10:42 history answered Torsten Asselmeyer-Maluga CC BY-SA 2.5