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Feb 8, 2020 at 23:10 comment added Bunyamin Sari Here is a reference
Feb 8, 2020 at 22:55 comment added Bill Johnson That James' space fails cotype was proved by James himself in the 1970s IIRC.
Feb 8, 2020 at 22:55 comment added Ben W @BunyaminSari Oh that's cool. I can find a reference myself if need be, now that I know what to look for. Ty : )
Feb 8, 2020 at 22:53 comment added Bunyamin Sari @Ben W Yes, $c_0$ is finitely representable in $\mathcal J$. I don't have access to references now though.
Feb 8, 2020 at 22:35 comment added Ben W @BunyaminSari Right but can you really find $\ell_\infty^n$ uniformly in $\mathcal{J}$ in the first place?
Feb 8, 2020 at 22:17 comment added Bunyamin Sari @Ben W The standard basis of $\mathcal J$ is skipped Hilbertian so whenever you have finite dimensional spaces with a gap in between their supports, they add in $\ell_2$ sense.
Feb 8, 2020 at 21:59 comment added Ben W How do you know these spaces are subspaces of $\mathcal{J}$? I suppose its sufficient to prove the case $p=\infty$, whence the remaining cases follow due to the fact that all finite-dimensional spaces embed almost isometrically into $\ell_\infty^n$ for sufficiently large $n$.
Feb 6, 2020 at 16:54 answer added Bunyamin Sari timeline score: 2
Feb 6, 2020 at 16:17 comment added Bunyamin Sari @YCor Yes to all.
Feb 6, 2020 at 16:16 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 6, 2020 at 16:13 comment added YCor For somebody outside this community: $\ell^p_n$ means the $n$-dimensional $\ell^p$? $(\Sigma\cdots)_2$ means the $\ell^2$-sum? Certainly "is the Hilbert space" means "is isomorphic to a Hilbert space".
Feb 6, 2020 at 16:08 history edited S Argyros
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Feb 6, 2020 at 14:10 review First posts
Feb 6, 2020 at 14:46
Feb 6, 2020 at 14:08 history asked S Argyros CC BY-SA 4.0