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Feb 4, 2020 at 10:48 comment added GH from MO @Lucia: Thanks again! The negative bias might explain why the OP is seeing $2/e$ instead of $1$. I updated my "Added" section.
Feb 4, 2020 at 10:42 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 10:40 comment added Lucia Yes, that's right. A slightly more precise approximation is that ${\frak S}(\{0, h\})$ behaves like $1-1/h$ on average, and the negative secondary contribution shows up in some biases.
Feb 4, 2020 at 10:37 comment added GH from MO @Lucia: Thanks for your comment! My $2C_2D_h$ is $\mathfrak{S}(\{0,h\})$, and this also has average $1$ because of translation invariance of $\mathfrak{S}(\{h_1,h_2\})$, right?
Feb 4, 2020 at 10:28 comment added Lucia Hi GH: The singular series constants are $1$ on average -- Hardy-Littlewood probabilities are approximately the same as Cramer probabilities on average. Thus one should have $C=1$ in your final answer.
Feb 4, 2020 at 9:54 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 9:42 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 9:36 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 7:57 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 7:47 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 4, 2020 at 7:35 vote accept Augusto Santi
Feb 4, 2020 at 7:33 history answered GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0