It's known that order topology is completely normal, so the lexicographic ordering on the unit square is also completely normal. It's also known that the lexicographic ordering on the unit square is not metrizable. I am interested in, is whether it is perfectly normal. (canA space is perfectly normal if for any two disjoint nonempty closed sets be separated bysubsets, there is a continuous function $f$ to $[0,1]$ that "precisely separates" the two sets, meaning that the two closed sets are $f^{-1}(0)$ and $f^{-1}(1)$.)? And how todo we prove that.it?
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