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Sep 11, 2010 at 19:01 vote accept Zack
Aug 10, 2010 at 15:52 comment added BS. Indeed, this proves that they are not the same as topological fiber bundles (not only as vector bundles). As to general homeomorphism, I can only prove that this would imply the existence in $TL^+$ ($L^+$ the half ray) of an homeomorphic copy of $L^+$, disjoint from the zero section and with proper projection to $L^+$. I don't know how to exclude this.
Aug 10, 2010 at 15:09 comment added Chris Schommer-Pries I think this second edit brings up an important point. When the OP says $L \times \mathbb{R}$ do they mean as a vector bundle (with the obvious action on the $\mathbb{R}$ factor)? or do they mean merely as a topological space? These are not obviously equivalent for the long line. So really it looks like there are two questions here.
Aug 10, 2010 at 14:17 history edited BS. CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 10, 2010 at 14:11 history edited BS. CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 10, 2010 at 13:42 history answered BS. CC BY-SA 2.5