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Aug 11, 2010 at 15:15 vote accept Kolya Ivankov
Aug 11, 2010 at 7:19 comment added Kolya Ivankov I think my question was not posed well enough. It seems I need to improve my background provided with the new references and to pose the original question, from which this one seemed to arrive. Thank you for the comment!
Aug 10, 2010 at 17:55 comment added Yemon Choi Could you please clarify what you mean by "an operator norm" and (as per the comments of Matthew Daws and the answer of Andreas Thom below) what operator space structure you are equipping $A_1$ and $A_2$ with?
Aug 10, 2010 at 16:16 comment added Kolya Ivankov Thanks for the question! Well, presumably it is like this. The algebra $A$ is a dense subspace of a $C^*$-algebra. I have an $A$-valued inner product on $A^n$, defined in usual way, and this inner product defines a Banach norm on $A^n$ as $\|\xi\|_A=\|\langle \xi^*;\xi\rangle\|_A$. This norm, in turn, defines a norm on $M_n(A)$ as $\|(a_{ij})\|_A=\|sup_{\xi\in\mathcal{B}(A^n)}\|(a_{ij})\xi\|_A$ where $\mathcal{B}(A^n)$ is a unit ball. Hope I haven't written a complete nonsence.
Aug 10, 2010 at 15:28 answer added Andreas Thom timeline score: 4
Aug 10, 2010 at 15:27 comment added Matthew Daws What norm do you want to put on the matrix algebras $M_n(A)$ and $M_n(B)$? If A is a C*-algebra than $M_n(A)$ is also a C*-algebra, and so this question doesn't arise. But it seems that for a general Banach *-algebra, there are loads of options for the norm on $M_n(A)$.
Aug 10, 2010 at 13:10 history edited Kolya Ivankov
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Aug 10, 2010 at 12:40 history asked Kolya Ivankov CC BY-SA 2.5