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Jan 16, 2020 at 12:41 history edited Geoff Robinson CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted paragraph, plus minor amendment
Jan 16, 2020 at 12:34 comment added user6976 @Geoff: Thabk you for the explanation.
Jan 16, 2020 at 10:20 comment added Geoff Robinson @MarkSapir: As I explained above, it is because the normal subgroup $K$ is the kernel of $5_{1}$, the statement would not be true in general for an arbitrary normal subgroup. Once $K$ is in thhe kernek of $5_{1}$, $K$ is also in the kernel of everything in sight in the original equation, so, as I said, $G/K$ has the same property (regarding $5_{1}$ as a representation of $G/K)$.
Jan 16, 2020 at 9:49 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @MarkSapir: Dietmar and Vaughan know all that, so if you and (one of) them are currently at Vanderbilt, it could be a good opportunity to discuss.
Jan 16, 2020 at 9:40 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @MarkSapir: the isomorphic classes of irreps form a ring under the tensor product (it has the strucutre of a fusion ring, and it is the Grothendieck ring of the fusion category $\mathrm{Rep}(G)$, but it does not matter). Now let consider $5_1$ as an element of this fusion ring, it generates a fusion subring which, as every fusion subring, is isomorphic to the Grothendieck ring of $\mathrm{Rep}(G/N)$ with $N$ a normal subgroup depending on the subring (here $N=ker(5_1)$).
Jan 16, 2020 at 9:03 comment added user6976 @SebastianPalcoux: I do not know what fusion sucategory is. But whatever it is it cannot be the same for $G$ and for $G/N$ if $N=G$. An easier question is (in Geoff's notation) why $G/K$ has an irrep of degree 7? If this is true it should have something to do with the fact that $K$ is the kernel of nn irrep of degree 5. It can't be true for arbitrqry normal $K$.
Jan 16, 2020 at 8:55 comment added Geoff Robinson @MarkSapir : Because if $5_{1}$ has $K$ in its kernel, so does every representation on the right side, because $5_{1} \otimes 5_{1}$ has $K$ in its kernel.
Jan 16, 2020 at 8:37 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @MarkSapir: $N=G$ corresponds to the trivial subcategory (i.e. given by the trivial irrep).
Jan 16, 2020 at 8:35 comment added user6976 @SebastienPalcoux: What if $N=G$?
Jan 16, 2020 at 8:30 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @MarkSapir: a fusion subcategory of $\mathrm{Rep}(G)$ is isomorphic to $\mathrm{Rep}(G/N)$ with $N \unlhd G$ (and reciprocally).
Jan 16, 2020 at 2:12 comment added user6976 @Geoff: Why is it true (in your notation) that $G/K$ has the same property as $G$?
Jan 15, 2020 at 21:22 history edited Geoff Robinson CC BY-SA 4.0
Some typoss corrected
Jan 15, 2020 at 18:39 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Jan 15, 2020 at 18:27 comment added Geoff Robinson I think it is probably true that if $p >3$ is a prime such that $q = p+2$ is also prime, then there is no finite group $G$ with a complex irreducible characters $\chi,\mu$ of respective degrees $p$ and $q$ such that $\chi^{2} = 1 + \chi + \mu + \theta$, where $\theta$ is a character ( or $0$). The argument (using Feit's Theorem rather than Brauer's) goes through more or less unchanged, after noting that $(3,5)$ is the only prime pair $(p,q)$ such that $p+1 = q-1$ is power of $2$. But this seems very specialized.
Jan 15, 2020 at 16:46 comment added Sebastien Palcoux I meant a weaker assumption on the decomposition: - Firstly, perhaps something like: the existence of (at least) one irrep of dim $5$ and of dim $7$ and $$5_1 \otimes 5_1 \ge 1 \oplus 5_1 \oplus 7_1$$ would be enough for your argument, correct? - And secondly, perhaps the couple $(5,7)$ can be generalized to a class of couples $(n,m)$, isn't it?
Jan 15, 2020 at 16:27 history edited Geoff Robinson CC BY-SA 4.0
Added remark
Jan 15, 2020 at 16:24 comment added Geoff Robinson Yes, this argument shows that there is no such finite $G$, simple or not. As for a more general statement, I am not sure: arguments about complex linear groups of low dimension tend to be rather ad hoc, and some arguments above are very specific to your hypotheses.
Jan 15, 2020 at 16:11 comment added Sebastien Palcoux My comment about Hiss-Malle is only for the simple groups. Your answer works for every group, right? Does your answer prove a more general statement than what expected? (because you seem to use just partially the assumption) If so, what is it? and to what could it be extended?
Jan 15, 2020 at 15:46 history answered Geoff Robinson CC BY-SA 4.0