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Dec 26, 2019 at 16:39 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @Guest: a priori this is not clear. I DEFINED $v=\Re(f(z))-\Re(f(\bar{z})$. Only in the end, as a consequence of the proof it turns out that this is the imaginary part.
Dec 26, 2019 at 13:29 comment added Guest Ok. I only have a question about the first line when you defined $v$: I know that $v(x, y)=\Im(f(z)) =\frac{f(z) - \overline {f(z)}} {2i}$. So, is your $v$ is the same as the imaginary part of $f$? According to what you wrote it is like having $v(x, y)=\frac{f(z) - \overline {f(\bar{z} )}} {2i}$!!!
Dec 26, 2019 at 13:17 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2019 at 13:09 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @Guest: I made one more small correction, hopefully the last one. Now $b$ does not depend on he choice of $g$, only on $f$ itself. If you impose the condition that $a$ is pure imaginary, (include real part of $a$ into $g$) then the representation becomes canonical: $g$, $a$ and $b$ depend only of $f$.
Dec 26, 2019 at 13:06 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2019 at 10:31 comment added Guest the content $b$ depends on the choice of the function $g$, is this wright?
Dec 26, 2019 at 4:20 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @Guest: thanks, I corrected.
Dec 26, 2019 at 4:19 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2019 at 4:12 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2019 at 3:52 history edited Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 26, 2019 at 3:48 comment added Guest thank you, this is true, and contains more. The function $f(z) =-iz=-ix+y$ satisfy the condition above but it is not real for real $z$.
Dec 26, 2019 at 3:43 history undeleted Alexandre Eremenko
Dec 25, 2019 at 22:48 history deleted Alexandre Eremenko via Vote
Dec 25, 2019 at 22:33 history answered Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0