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Dec 26, 2019 at 17:39 vote accept Mehmet Ozan Kabak
Dec 26, 2019 at 17:39 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @Arno: OK, I think I understand the root issue now. There is no way to "fix" forward and reverse maps simultaneously while preserving the space-filling property, regardless whether we operate in $I$ or $\mathbb{CN}$.
Dec 26, 2019 at 16:29 comment added Arno @MehmetOzanKabak We would end up with a bijection between the computable points, but the map is no longer computable, and it is no longer a space-filling curve.
Dec 26, 2019 at 16:22 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @Arno: I don't mean to be stubborn. I'm trying to understand the root issue as best as I can, but I fail. If we slightly modify the definition of the space-filling function to use finite binary expansions for dyadic rational values, why wouldn't we end up with a one-to-one map?
Dec 26, 2019 at 16:09 comment added Arno Related: mathoverflow.net/q/303278/15002
Dec 26, 2019 at 16:07 comment added Arno @MehmetOzanKabak Yes, the issue "just" comes from dyadic rationals. No, we can't resolve this by any kind of agreement - because we cannot compute any specific binary expansion (or Gray code) from a real number. (Technically we even ought to be using signed digit expansions rather than binary...)
Dec 26, 2019 at 15:06 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @GeraldEdgar: OK, the inverse image of $(1/2, 1/2)$ indeed converges to $1/6$ if we use the infinite expansion $0.01111\cdots$. But isn't this a special issue that only manifests for dyadic rationals? If we agree to use finite expansions for dyadic rationals (which is a subset of computable numbers), don't we end up with a one-to-one map?
Dec 26, 2019 at 14:41 comment added Gerald Edgar Where am I going wrong? The number $1/2$ has more than one binary expansion. Not only $0.10000\cdots$ but also $0.01111\cdots$.
Dec 26, 2019 at 14:31 comment added Pietro Majer Note that if we agree to represent a point of $I^3$ (or in general $I^n$) with a unique expansion, i.e. just merging the digits of the three coordinates: $x_1,y_1,z_1,x_2,y_2,z_2,x_3,\dots$ , then the Peano curve $I\to I^3$ comes from an extremely simple involutory bijection on the ternary strings $\{0,1,2\}^\mathbb{N} \to \{0,1,2\}^\mathbb{N}$; thus at least on the representing digits your conjecture it is true. Of course, passing to the quotient, one gets a non-injective curve $I\to I^3$. Points with multiple fiber are easily characterized.
Dec 26, 2019 at 14:19 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @GeraldEdgar: If we list finite binary approximations of $(1/2, 1/2)$ as a sequence of tuples, we get: $((0.1, 0.1), (0.10, 0.10), (0.100, 0.100), ...)$. Feeding this to the reverse algorithm, we generate the binary digits $(0.1, 0.10, 0.100, ...)$. It is actually easy to see that all further zeroes in the input sequence result in zeroes in the output sequence. Therefore, I deduce that $(1/2, 1/2)$ maps (uniquely) to $1/2$. Where am I going wrong?
Dec 26, 2019 at 14:13 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @PietroMajer: I mean the n-dimensional generalization that uses Gray codes. I added this to the question body.
Dec 26, 2019 at 14:11 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0
Incorporate Pietro Majer's comments to clarify the question
Dec 26, 2019 at 12:50 comment added Pietro Majer The Hilbert curve is the very specific square filling curve $I\mapsto I^2$ defined via a dyadic subdivision, but what should be the definition of a "Hilbert curve" in $I^n$ , i.e a filling cube curve in dimension $n\ge3$? Hilbert does not make any mention to such a generalization, btw. There are of course many constructions of $n$-cube filling curves (already described in the Peano's paper) but it is not clear if you refer to a precise natural generalization of Hilbert construction.
Dec 26, 2019 at 12:31 comment added Gerald Edgar For example, in this Hilbert curve: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hilbert_curve the midpoint $(1/2,1/2)$is the image of three different points, all computable.
Dec 26, 2019 at 11:51 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0
Further clarifications and references
Dec 26, 2019 at 11:21 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0
Mentioned both the forward and the reverse algorithms
Dec 26, 2019 at 7:36 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed a typo that mixed domain/range of the Hilbert curve, restricted domain/range to unit interval
Dec 25, 2019 at 22:54 answer added Arno timeline score: 6
Dec 25, 2019 at 21:09 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak How can we construct a non-injective example? It seems to me that the standard algorithm based on Gray codes produces unique output bits for each input bit sequence. What am I missing?
Dec 25, 2019 at 20:56 comment added Noah Schweber I believe the standard curve is not injective on computable points - intuitively, we can find many non-injectivities pretty easily, and this suggests that those non-injectivities are computable.
Dec 25, 2019 at 20:55 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0
Added reference to the specific curve/construction algorithm I have in mind.
Dec 25, 2019 at 20:52 comment added Mehmet Ozan Kabak @NoahSchweber; You are right, being specific matters here. Even though I was talking about the specific curve whose construction was as given in the Wikipedia link, this was not clear. I will add a reference to a specific construction to clarify the question.
Dec 25, 2019 at 20:40 comment added Noah Schweber Injectivity depends on the curve of course - maybe the original curve maps two computable points to the same element. I think the "right" question here is whether some Hilbert curve which is computable is injective on the computable points.
Dec 25, 2019 at 20:28 history edited Mehmet Ozan Kabak
Added the computability-theory tag
Dec 25, 2019 at 19:57 history asked Mehmet Ozan Kabak CC BY-SA 4.0