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Dec 17, 2019 at 5:56 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 17, 2019 at 3:51 comment added George Lowther ok, I added my proof, but it worked out a bit trickier than expected.
Dec 17, 2019 at 3:10 comment added Jeremy Brazas Yes, something here will need to be fixed for the case when $S$ includes $\overline{B}(x,r)$ with other things attached. If $S$ is just a closed ball, the conclusion is pretty obvious.
Dec 17, 2019 at 2:56 comment added Thomas Browning Why does there exist a point $y\in\overline{B}(x,r)\setminus S$? What if $S$ is a closed ball?
Dec 17, 2019 at 2:40 comment added Jeremy Brazas @GeorgeLowther I feel like my argument is a fairly direct use of the Lemma but the difficulty I ran into is that you have no real control of what the image of a loop in $S\backslash\{x\}$ looks like or how it relates to $x$ and Lemma 13 requires a particular relationship between this image set and $x$. I found that it required a little finagling to make sure that $x$ actually ends up in the unbounded component of the inner region of a loop.
Dec 17, 2019 at 2:27 comment added George Lowther I see you are using Lemma 13 already, so we are along the same lines, but I think it can be simplified. You need to show that a null-homotopic closed curve in $\mathbb R^2\setminus\{x\}$ and lying in $S$ is also null-homotopic in $S\setminus\{x\}$, which follows from the lemma.
Dec 17, 2019 at 2:23 comment added George Lowther I haven't gone through your answer in detail, but I am aware of a reasonably direct proof using Lemma 13 from the quoted paper (as I used in this math.SE answer: math.stackexchange.com/a/3313163/1321)
Dec 17, 2019 at 2:02 comment added Jeremy Brazas I apologize to everyone for editing this so much. This problem is far more interesting and delicate than I had anticipated. I'm cautiously hopeful that this new argument will either be a solution or lead to one.
Dec 17, 2019 at 1:56 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 17, 2019 at 1:49 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 17, 2019 at 1:26 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2019 at 22:09 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2019 at 22:04 history edited Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 16, 2019 at 22:01 comment added Neil Strickland To elaborate on @YCor's first comment: if $G=\langle x,y|yx=xy^2\rangle$ then the pushout of $1\xleftarrow{}\langle x\rangle\to G$ is $1$, but $\langle x\rangle$ is an infinite cyclic group and a retract of $G$ as we see by sending $y$ to $1$.
Dec 16, 2019 at 21:53 comment added Jeremy Brazas You are right, a more geometric argument is required.
Dec 16, 2019 at 21:52 comment added YCor More precisely it is not true that given a path-connected space $X$ with a collared circle $C$ (i.e., with a closed subset homeomorphic to $C\times [0,1]$ with $C\times [0,1[$ being open in $X$, the "collared circle" being the copy of $C\times\{0\}$, assuming that gluing a disc along $C$ yields a simply connected space, does not imply that $X$ has cyclic fundamental group, and even if one assumes that $\pi_1(X)$ is torsion-free and that $\pi_1(C)$ is a retract subgroup of $\pi_1(X)$.
Dec 16, 2019 at 21:22 comment added YCor My impression is that this argument only proves that the quotient of $\pi_1(U)$ by the normal closure of some cyclic (retract) subgroup is trivial.
Dec 16, 2019 at 21:10 history answered Jeremy Brazas CC BY-SA 4.0