Timeline for Confusion optimal control abuse notation
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
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Dec 13, 2019 at 21:14 | history | edited | YCor | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
removed capitals from title
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Dec 13, 2019 at 20:56 | comment | added | Piyush Grover | Well, the optimality condition gives you HJB, where the Hamiltonian term (see notes I linked to) is maximized over all possible controls, i.e., to do the sup, you have to allow control to have arbitary dependence on $v,x,\sigma$.. So you cannot prescribe the optimal control to be constant: it comes out of the maximization (sup ) process. Now depending upon the system, it may depend just on $\nabla v$, .e.g., in linear quadratic case (example given in the paper you mention), and yes, then you can omit other terms | |
Dec 13, 2019 at 20:40 | comment | added | ABIM | In other words if my control doesn't depend on the value function explicitly then those terms may be ommited? Ex if it is constant? | |
Dec 13, 2019 at 16:52 | comment | added | Piyush Grover | Agree it is horrible notation. f is still the same f, but now implicitly depends on $\sigma$, $v$,and its gradient because the $a$ is taken to be $a(x,v,\nabla v,\Delta v,\sigma)$. See these notes e.g.: columbia.edu/~dl3133/MFGSpring2018.pdf pages 63-70. In other words, $f=f(x,a(x,v,\nabla v,\Delta v,\sigma))$ | |
Dec 13, 2019 at 16:29 | history | asked | ABIM | CC BY-SA 4.0 |