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Aug 15, 2010 at 9:34 history edited Behrang Noohi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 11, 2010 at 17:57 history edited Behrang Noohi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 10, 2010 at 11:40 comment added Behrang Noohi That was very helpful, thanks (also to Angelo). I am trying to come up with a general statement which is valid for ANY base scheme (but I am a bit flexible with $f$). Although flatness of $f$ may be the wrong kind of assumption here, the non-normal counterexamples I can think of turn out to be non flat.
Aug 10, 2010 at 11:23 history edited Behrang Noohi CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 7, 2010 at 16:11 answer added Angelo timeline score: 2
Aug 7, 2010 at 14:50 history edited Bruce Westbury CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 7, 2010 at 13:28 comment added BCnrd By the way, surely despite the weakening of properness, you still assume $f$ is separated, right? Please edit the question so it is accurate as stated.
Aug 7, 2010 at 13:26 comment added BCnrd Problem local on base, so $S =$ Spec($A$), $Y =$ Spec($B$), $g$ is $A$-alg. map $B \rightarrow O(X)$, & ask if image = $A$ ($A \rightarrow O(X)$ is inj.). If OK for all $B$ f. pres. over $A$ then OK for all $A$-alg. $B$ by limits. Then $B = O(X)$ forces $O(X) = A$. Conversely if $O(X) = A$ all OK. So $Y$ irrelevant; question is if $O_S \rightarrow f_ {\ast}O_X$ is =. Surely $U$ dense in sense preserved by localization, so localize @ generic pt of complement of max. open where $O_S = f_ {\ast}O_X$, so $S$ local and "$O_S = f_ {\ast}O_X$" away from closed pt. Try Nagata or non-normal counterex.
Aug 7, 2010 at 13:09 answer added Ricky timeline score: 2
Aug 7, 2010 at 12:03 history asked Behrang Noohi CC BY-SA 2.5