Timeline for prime dividing no term in a sequence
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 17, 2019 at 14:30 | answer | added | Ivan Meir | timeline score: 2 | |
| Dec 9, 2019 at 17:33 | comment | added | reuns | It is believed that up to simple obstructions, if for one $p$ the sequence is coprime with $p$ then the same happens for infinitely many $p$. | |
| Dec 9, 2019 at 4:57 | history | edited | joaopa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Dec 9, 2019 at 4:36 | comment | added | WhatsUp | The answer to the literal question is "yes" with $A_1 = 1$ and $A_2 = \dotsc = A_m = 0$. So please disallow $A_i = 0$ or I will post this answer... | |
| Dec 9, 2019 at 3:20 | history | edited | joaopa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Dec 9, 2019 at 3:07 | history | edited | joaopa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Dec 9, 2019 at 2:59 | comment | added | Gerhard Paseman | I believe the answer is no if the q_i are sufficiently distinct. I will see I can find a reference. Gerhard "Checking On My Advisor's Work" Paseman, 2019.12.08. | |
| Dec 9, 2019 at 2:40 | history | edited | joaopa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Dec 9, 2019 at 2:20 | history | asked | joaopa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |