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Dec 9, 2019 at 0:32 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Deleted 'thanks', per community norms
Dec 8, 2019 at 20:30 answer added telemaco timeline score: 1
Dec 8, 2019 at 18:24 vote accept Jamie Mathews
Dec 8, 2019 at 14:13 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 10
Dec 8, 2019 at 13:19 history edited Jamie Mathews CC BY-SA 4.0
added 97 characters in body
Dec 8, 2019 at 13:12 comment added Aleksei Kulikov I feel like I'm missing something, but if $f\perp e^{isx}$ in $L^2(\mu)$ for all $s$ then $g = fd\mu \in \mathcal{S}'$ satisfies $\hat{g} = 0$ which implies that $g = 0$.
Dec 8, 2019 at 12:25 review First posts
Dec 8, 2019 at 16:51
Dec 8, 2019 at 12:20 history asked Jamie Mathews CC BY-SA 4.0