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Oct 28, 2010 at 22:59 comment added Nick S There exists a "simple" formula for the seuence: $$ \frac{{\rm lcm} (1,2,3,.., n+1)}{\rm lcm} (1,2,3,.., n)}$$ is $p$ if (n+1)= p^ \alpha$ for some prime $p$ and $1$ otherwise.
Aug 6, 2010 at 19:46 answer added Michael Lugo timeline score: 5
Aug 6, 2010 at 17:20 vote accept Abdulaziz
Aug 6, 2010 at 16:41 answer added Daniel Krenn timeline score: 4
Aug 6, 2010 at 16:00 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Well, it's equal to 1 infinitely often, so...
Aug 6, 2010 at 16:00 comment added damiano Have you tried $n+1=2p$, where $p$ is a prime?
Aug 6, 2010 at 15:55 history asked Abdulaziz CC BY-SA 2.5