Timeline for If $0 \le \mu(A) < p < 1$, when is it true that there exists a measurable $B \supseteq A$ such that $\mu(B)=p$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 29, 2019 at 17:17 | comment | added | dohmatob | Great constructive answer. Thanks! | |
| Nov 29, 2019 at 17:02 | history | answered | Fedor Petrov | CC BY-SA 4.0 |