Skip to main content
29 events
when toggle format what by license comment
S Apr 26, 2017 at 6:53 history bounty ended Gil Kalai
S Apr 26, 2017 at 6:53 history notice removed Gil Kalai
Apr 20, 2017 at 23:51 answer added Will Sawin timeline score: 5
S Apr 19, 2017 at 20:21 history bounty started Gil Kalai
S Apr 19, 2017 at 20:21 history notice added Gil Kalai Draw attention
Oct 3, 2013 at 15:35 answer added Koushik timeline score: 5
Apr 20, 2011 at 21:46 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 10 characters in body
Sep 22, 2010 at 16:56 comment added Tom Goodwillie That works. A regular point $x$ in an $n$-dimensional variety $X$ has a Zariski nbhd $U$ admitting an etale map $U\to\mathbb A^n$ with $x\mapsto 0$. If $(Y,y)$ is another $n$-dimensional variety with regular point then do the same with a suitable nbhd $V$ of $y$. Now form the fiber product of $U$ and $V$ over $\mathbb A^n$. (If you want it irreducible, take the component containing the point you care about.) Something like that.
Sep 22, 2010 at 15:50 comment added Michael Bächtold The definition of locally isomorphic I had in mind, is that there is a third variety which is etale over both and has the two points under consideration in the image of the maps. But maybe that is to strong?
Sep 21, 2010 at 14:05 comment added Tom Goodwillie Yes, under a reasonable definition of "locally isomorphic". Maybe even under more than one reasonable definition of "locally isomorphic". I have to do some work now, but will be happy to continue this conversation less cryptically later.
Sep 21, 2010 at 12:09 comment added Michael Bächtold Tom: thanks for your answer (and sorry for coming back only now to this thread). I feel like asking an even more basic question after your answer: does it become true in the etale topology, that any two varieties of the same dimension are locally isomorphic near regular points?
Aug 14, 2010 at 12:51 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5
deleted 110 characters in body
Aug 13, 2010 at 19:35 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5
added 546 characters in body
Aug 8, 2010 at 21:48 answer added Daniel Pomerleano timeline score: 7
Aug 6, 2010 at 23:13 comment added Steve Huntsman mathoverflow.net/questions/10667/…
Aug 6, 2010 at 21:27 comment added Simon Pepin Lehalleur Although this is a very broad question, I hope some people will give it a try... I am more and more convinced that the importation of concepts from analysis (smooth on the one hand and complex analytic on the other) into algebraic geometry is one of its most subtle aspect.
Aug 6, 2010 at 18:01 comment added Tom Goodwillie Michael: No. Write $dy=ydx$. A transcendental curve $y=e^x$ is not going to become algebraic when you pull it back along an etale surjection to the $x,y$ plane.
Aug 6, 2010 at 17:18 comment added Michael Bächtold I also like this question. Regarding the ODE example here is one related question: does the Frobenius theorem become true in the etale topology for algebraic varieties: i.e. are any two involutive distributions of the same dimensions "locally" isomorphic?
Aug 6, 2010 at 8:07 answer added algori timeline score: 36
Aug 6, 2010 at 5:48 comment added Eugene Eisenstein I really hesitate to try to answer any of this. All I'll say is, in birational geometry, the analog of Sard's theorem and moving lemmas works well in the vanilla Zariski topology. The notion of "general" and "very general" seems adequate so far. For uncountable fields, the complement of a countable union of hypersurfaces is dense is an algebraic Baire category theorem. Of course, over countable fields like $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ the matter is very different. But then some of the things that follow from arguments about very general points are expected to fail in that setup, eg cycles.
Aug 6, 2010 at 5:05 comment added Kevin H. Lin I mean, I think the algebraic dR complex is not a resolution of the constant sheaf, since for instance $\log z = \int \frac{1}{z} dz$ is transcendental. So, right--the Poincare lemma does not hold. But we can view the Poincare lemma as saying "the dR complex is a resolution of the constant sheaf, so we can use it to compute cohomology of the constant sheaf". So defining algebraic dR cohomology via hypercohomology of the dR complex is kind of like saying "pretend the Poincare lemma is true--pretend that the algebraic dR complex is a resolution of the constant sheaf". Theorem ~> Definition.
Aug 6, 2010 at 4:43 comment added Tom Goodwillie some: I wonder what I mean, too.
Aug 6, 2010 at 4:42 comment added Tom Goodwillie Kevin: That kind of algebraic de Rham cohomology doesn't satisfy Poincare Lemma unless you're over $\mathbb Q$.
Aug 6, 2010 at 4:35 comment added some guy on the street I wonder what you mean for the ODEs, because we know we can't stay in the algebraic category; but then there is all that differential Galois theory, that you get by expanding the language and repeating the thm => def'n ploy.
Aug 6, 2010 at 4:24 comment added Kevin H. Lin I think the "Poincare Lemma" in algebraic geometry is done via the "French trick": We simply define algebraic de Rham cohomology to be the hypercohomology of the de Rham complex $(\Omega_X^\bullet,d)$.
Aug 6, 2010 at 4:23 comment added Kevin H. Lin I have always wondered whether and how one can integrate vector fields in algebraic geometry...
Aug 6, 2010 at 3:29 comment added B. Bischof Beautiful question, touches on a question I have been brewing for weeks.
Aug 6, 2010 at 2:05 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5
added 4 characters in body
Aug 6, 2010 at 1:55 history asked Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 2.5