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Nov 24, 2019 at 16:08 vote accept Spencer Dembner
Nov 24, 2019 at 10:05 comment added Neil Strickland See also mathoverflow.net/questions/128178
Nov 23, 2019 at 18:15 comment added Spencer Dembner @JeremyRickard good point. Given what you've said, how is it that Freyd-Mitchell is usually taken to justify diagram chasing? I guess we work with some essentially small subcategory containing all the objects we care about, and then embed that one instead?
Nov 23, 2019 at 16:59 answer added Johannes Hahn timeline score: 13
Nov 23, 2019 at 10:49 comment added Jeremy Rickard The Freyd-Mitchell theorem doesn't state that any abelian category admits an exact embedding into a module category. It states that any small abelian category does. The examples you give (although they may admit such embeddings) are not small, so the existence of embeddings isn't an immediate consequence of the Freyd-Mitchell theorem.
Nov 23, 2019 at 8:47 answer added Ivan Di Liberti timeline score: 4
Nov 23, 2019 at 0:48 history asked Spencer Dembner CC BY-SA 4.0