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Nov 22, 2019 at 13:58 vote accept WhoAmI
Nov 22, 2019 at 13:26 answer added Achim Krause timeline score: 37
Nov 22, 2019 at 13:15 review First posts
Nov 22, 2019 at 13:48
Nov 22, 2019 at 13:14 comment added Achim Krause As written, this is false. What follows from Whitehead is that given a map $f: X\to Y$ between connected spaces, which induces an equivalence on loop spaces, it was an equivalence to begin with. This follows for example also from the fact that loop space and the bar construction constitute inverse equivalences between connected spaces and grouplike $\mathbb{E} _1$-spaces.
Nov 22, 2019 at 13:10 history asked WhoAmI CC BY-SA 4.0