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Aug 6, 2010 at 9:19 vote accept yeshengkui
Aug 5, 2010 at 15:31 comment added Andreas Thom I was thinking about the other direction of my claim about zero-divisors and nilpotent elements. In fact I was just explaining some detail of Passman's argument that you mentioned already in your comment.
Aug 5, 2010 at 15:23 comment added Victor Protsak You say: "The other direction is obvious". The question asked about a possible equivalence between zero divisor conjecture and idempotent conjecture. How does existence of non-trivial nilpotents imply existence of non-trivial idempotents (elements $e$ other than $0,1$ satisfying $e^2=e$)?
Aug 5, 2010 at 12:25 history answered Andreas Thom CC BY-SA 2.5