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Nov 16, 2019 at 16:57 vote accept Saj_Eda
Nov 14, 2019 at 21:45 comment added Yuval Peres The comments are not really designed for asking additional questions. Without further assumptions the converse does not hold, consider $u_n(x)=n/x$ for $x>n$ and $u_n(x)=0$ elsewhere. Then $L(u_n)$ tends to $L(0)=0$ pointwise for $s>0$, but $\int_0^\infty u_n u_1\, dx=1$ for all $n$.
Nov 14, 2019 at 21:38 comment added Yuval Peres If the above answered your question, you can indicate that by accepting the answer. meta.mathoverflow.net/questions/3724/how-to-accept-answer
Nov 14, 2019 at 16:24 comment added Saj_Eda Is the converse also true? That is, if $L(u_n)(s)$ converges pointwise to $L(u)(s)$, then $u_n(t)$ converges weakly to $u(t)$?
Nov 14, 2019 at 5:59 history answered Yuval Peres CC BY-SA 4.0