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Nov 13, 2019 at 22:09 comment added Alex Kruckman Well, the proof of Gaifman's theorem seems to use omitting types in a crucial way... I don't have nearly enough intuition about this stuff to make a guess about whether there's a counterexample.
Nov 13, 2019 at 21:03 comment added James E Hanson Not that I need the uncountable case, but I always get curious: Do you think it fails for uncountable languages?
Nov 13, 2019 at 21:02 vote accept James E Hanson
Nov 13, 2019 at 19:36 history answered Alex Kruckman CC BY-SA 4.0