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S May 22, 2020 at 6:55 history suggested Hans CC BY-SA 4.0
Corrected the reference to the formula.
May 22, 2020 at 3:38 review Suggested edits
S May 22, 2020 at 6:55
May 21, 2020 at 20:22 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Hans : I'll have that new question in mind. However, at this point I don't have good ideas about it.
May 21, 2020 at 17:39 comment added Hans Hi, Iosif: Would you terribly mind taking a look at my new question mathoverflow.net/q/360554/32660? Thank you!
Nov 14, 2019 at 14:50 comment added Iosif Pinelis I am glad you found the remark helpful. The updated notations do seem easier to grasp.
Nov 14, 2019 at 4:37 comment added Hans Thank you for adding the remark showing the details of the derivation. That is really helpful. I have edited the notations in the question as you suggested. Hope you like it.
Nov 13, 2019 at 13:54 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 13, 2019 at 9:35 vote accept Hans
Nov 13, 2019 at 9:35 comment added Hans I am trying to make the Markov chain admit time inhomogeneity. But admittedly, I could have just used $p_{i,j}(t)$ making it dependent on time $t$. Thank you, Iosif.
Nov 13, 2019 at 4:03 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Hans : I had misunderstood one of your conditions (I find your notations hard to grasp -- actually, you only need $P$ and $Q$ and a few words). Anyhow, the conjecture still fails to hold. You can actually do all this testing/calculations yourself, with the tools provided in my answer to the previous version of your question, at mathoverflow.net/questions/345450/… .
Nov 13, 2019 at 3:54 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 13, 2019 at 2:16 comment added Hans Why are $0=p_{3,5}<q_{3,5}=1$ and $p_{4,2}=q_{4,2}=1$, with the first inequality violates the premise more severely than the second?
Nov 12, 2019 at 16:35 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 12, 2019 at 15:35 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0