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Nov 7, 2019 at 5:18 comment added Hans I posed the version 2 of this question here mathoverflow.net/q/345450/32660. Please check it out. Thank you.
Nov 7, 2019 at 5:10 comment added Iosif Pinelis @Hans : I think this question should be posted separately. If the assumptions are so strengthened, then, somewhat strangely, the answer appears to turn positive, but I don't have a complete proof of that yet.
Nov 7, 2019 at 5:04 vote accept Hans
Nov 7, 2019 at 4:17 comment added Hans Can you find a counterexample for $p_{ii}=q_{ii}$ and strict inequalities $p_{ij}<q_{ij}, \forall 1<j<i$?
Nov 7, 2019 at 3:59 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 7, 2019 at 3:47 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0