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Oct 31, 2019 at 16:18 comment added user43326 Or, you can simply use the classification of coverings.
Oct 31, 2019 at 15:35 comment added user43326 Since there is a continuous map from one to the other...
Oct 31, 2019 at 15:17 comment added Jackson Morrow @user43326 I believe this this should work, but I am a bit confused about how you show that the topology of $\tilde{X}/\mathbb{Z}$ is finer than that of $Y$? Could you expand on this point?
Oct 31, 2019 at 10:27 comment added user43326 The topology of $Y$ is finer than that of $X$. But the topology of $\tilde{X}/{\mathbb Z}$ is finer than that of $Y$. However, $\tilde{X}/{\mathbb Z}$ is nothing but $X$. So $X$ and $Y$ should be homeomorphic, or am I missing something?
Oct 31, 2019 at 0:30 review Close votes
Nov 4, 2019 at 3:05
Oct 30, 2019 at 22:45 comment added YCor @user44191 what you prove is what I just said, namely that $a$ is bijective. A little more step is needed to obtain that $a$ is a homeomorphism.
Oct 30, 2019 at 22:37 comment added Jackson Morrow @YCor Sorry about that! I meant a morphism of topological spaces
Oct 30, 2019 at 22:36 history edited Jackson Morrow CC BY-SA 4.0
added details to question
Oct 30, 2019 at 22:09 comment added YCor It easily follows from the assumptions that $a$ is bijective.
Oct 30, 2019 at 21:53 comment added YCor @KevinCasto $X$ is a group by assumption (I agree the notation is misleading).
Oct 30, 2019 at 21:50 comment added YCor What do you mean by "morphism $Y\to X$"? morphism of what?
Oct 30, 2019 at 21:49 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed capitals from title
Oct 30, 2019 at 20:27 history asked Jackson Morrow CC BY-SA 4.0