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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Feb 4, 2013 at 14:38 answer added Oded Goldreich timeline score: 6
Aug 4, 2010 at 13:00 vote accept Marcos Villagra
Aug 4, 2010 at 6:18 history edited Marcos Villagra CC BY-SA 2.5
edited body
Aug 4, 2010 at 4:14 history edited Marcos Villagra CC BY-SA 2.5
added 7 characters in body
Aug 4, 2010 at 4:14 comment added Marcos Villagra Yes, it actually should read "there exists" instead of "for any".
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:51 comment added Tsuyoshi Ito As I wrote, I do not think that it is believed that BPP has no complete language. I am afraid that there is also something wrong with the second sentence because BPP^PSPACE=PSPACE has a complete language. I do not know the situation about MA, though. At least, I believe that no MA-complete language is known, because such a characterization of MA would be a huge discovery.
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:46 answer added Ryan Williams timeline score: 20
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:45 answer added Peter Shor timeline score: 22
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:39 history edited Marcos Villagra CC BY-SA 2.5
added 44 characters in body
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:35 comment added Marcos Villagra Yes, that's true. It is a very strong thig to say. I'll edit that part. Thanks
Aug 4, 2010 at 3:19 comment added Tsuyoshi Ito Actually, it is not clear that BPP has no complete language. In fact, some (many?) complexity theorists believe BPP=P, in which case BPP has a complete language!
Aug 4, 2010 at 2:51 history asked Marcos Villagra CC BY-SA 2.5