Timeline for Does injectivity of $\pi_1(\partial U) \to \pi_1(M)$ imply injectivity of $\pi_1(U) \to \pi_1(M)$?
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 17, 2019 at 9:48 | comment | added | HJRW | Or indeed one and none. This is a counterexample to the question as written (which needs some work), but not to reasonable perturbations of the question. For instance, if you remove small open discs instead of points, then it ceases to be a counterexample. | |
| Oct 16, 2019 at 22:50 | review | First posts | |||
| Oct 17, 2019 at 2:48 | |||||
| Oct 16, 2019 at 22:49 | history | answered | Steve D | CC BY-SA 4.0 |