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May 13, 2020 at 10:27 history edited CNS709 CC BY-SA 4.0
added 667 characters in body
Oct 17, 2019 at 8:21 answer added user51223 timeline score: 21
Oct 16, 2019 at 21:15 review Close votes
Oct 17, 2019 at 13:36
Oct 16, 2019 at 21:03 comment added abx Oh, I see. You mean that they happen to be the same group, and you ask for a natural explanation. I didn't get that from your post.
Oct 16, 2019 at 21:00 comment added CNS709 @abx Why? $\pi_{n+1}(\mathbb{S}^n) \cong \mathbb{Z}$ if $n = 2$, $\mathbb{Z}_2$ otherwise; $\pi_1(\mathbb{RP^{n-1}}) \cong \mathbb{Z}$ if $n-1=1$, $\mathbb{Z}_2$ otherwise. Am I wrong?
Oct 16, 2019 at 20:55 comment added abx Where did you see that in Wikipedia? This is completely false.
Oct 16, 2019 at 20:47 history asked CNS709 CC BY-SA 4.0