Timeline for Does injectivity of $\pi_1(\partial U) \to \pi_1(M)$ imply injectivity of $\pi_1(U) \to \pi_1(M)$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Feb 24, 2020 at 12:57 | answer | added | Yaniv Ganor | timeline score: 5 | |
Oct 20, 2019 at 2:09 | comment | added | LSpice |
You should use stars *stars* in MathJax, not $\textit{math mode fakery}$ $\textit{math mode fakery}$ , for italics. I have edited accordingly.
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Oct 20, 2019 at 2:07 | history | edited | LSpice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
$$ -> ** for italics
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Oct 18, 2019 at 12:16 | vote | accept | Yaniv Ganor | ||
Oct 18, 2019 at 9:35 | answer | added | HJRW | timeline score: 27 | |
Oct 18, 2019 at 9:10 | comment | added | Ian Agol | You might be seeking Van Kampen's theorem: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seifert%E2%80%93van_Kampen_theorem | |
Oct 18, 2019 at 9:01 | history | edited | Yaniv Ganor | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
: I reformulated the question adding compactness of M and U to rule out the counterexample given in an answer.
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Oct 17, 2019 at 9:50 | comment | added | HJRW | Perhaps you want $M$ and $U$ to be compact, to rule out counterexamples like the one in Steve's answer? | |
Oct 16, 2019 at 22:49 | answer | added | Steve D | timeline score: 9 | |
Oct 16, 2019 at 19:47 | history | edited | LSpice | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Deleted pre- and post-amble
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Oct 16, 2019 at 16:57 | history | asked | Yaniv Ganor | CC BY-SA 4.0 |