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Oct 15, 2019 at 4:21 vote accept Ali Taghavi
Oct 14, 2019 at 18:07 comment added YCor @user44191 you're right, thanks for the correction.
Oct 14, 2019 at 17:58 comment added user44191 @YCor I think you made a sign error when switching $x$ and $z$ in the inner bracket? $[x,[y,z]]+[y,[x,z]]=0$ becomes $[x,[y,z]]−[y,[z,x]]=0$, or $[x,[y,z]]=[y,[z,x]]$. You get equality when cycling, and sign change when switching any 2 of the 3, if I'm not mistaken. Which leads to using Jacobi and needing $3$ to not be a $0$-divisor, but $2$ is free.
Oct 14, 2019 at 9:18 answer added YCor timeline score: 14
Oct 14, 2019 at 9:00 comment added YCor ... oh, but the latter is already solved here :mathoverflow.net/a/299943/14094. I'll post an answer.
Oct 14, 2019 at 8:45 comment added YCor Conversely BCH for a unital Banach algebra satisfying $[x,[x,y]]=0$ identically writes as $\exp(x)\exp(y)=\exp(x+y+\frac12[xy])$ and this gives the commutator identity. So a unital Banach algebra satisfies the given commutator identity iff its underlying Lie algebra is 2-step nilpotent. What remains is to determine whether a $C^*$-algebra whose underlying Lie algebra is 2-step nilpotent is necessarily commutative.
Oct 14, 2019 at 7:47 comment added YCor @user44191 polarization gives $[x,[y,z]]+[y,[x,z]]=0$ (for all $x,y,z$). This can be rewritten as $[y,[z,x]]=-[x,[y,z]]$, and iterating 3 times we get $[x,[y,z]]=-[y,[z,x]]=[z,[x,y]]=-[x,[y,z]]$. Hence if $2$ is invertible (the question is over $\mathbf{C}$) we get $[x,[y,z]]=0$ without using Jacobi.
Oct 14, 2019 at 4:04 comment added user44191 @YCor I think it may be worth noting that the Jacobi identity is needed, that is, that polarization doesn't quite give the result directly. The derivation is straightforward, but not immediate.
Oct 13, 2019 at 21:12 comment added YCor Taylor at order 3 $[+O(\|x\|^4+\|y\|^4)]$ yields that a unital Banach algebra with this identity has to be 2-step nilpotent (that is $[x,y]$) is central for all $x,y$); indeed it says that $[x,[x,y]]$ is zero, which by polarization gives the result.
Oct 13, 2019 at 21:05 comment added user44191 I would expect that the Baker-Campbell-Hausdorff formula could be used to say that $A$ is commutative; failing that, that for every $X, Y$ we have that $[X, Y]$ commutes with $X$ and $Y$. Have you tried it?
Oct 13, 2019 at 20:51 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed typos
Oct 13, 2019 at 19:40 comment added Yemon Choi [deleted over hasty attempt at an answer, I need to revisit this]
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:55 vote accept Ali Taghavi
Oct 13, 2019 at 19:08
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:52 comment added Ali Taghavi @YemonChoi I thank you too for your revision.
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:46 comment added Yemon Choi Thanks for the clarification. I have reworded the title in case anyone makes the same error as I did
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:39 history edited Yemon Choi CC BY-SA 4.0
improved title and wording to avoid condusion
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:36 comment added Ali Taghavi @YemonChoi motivation is added
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:36 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0
added 184 characters in body
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:33 comment added Ali Taghavi @YemonChoi the left commutator is an an algebra commutator but the right one is a group commutator. So it holds for all commutative algebra. The equation in the title is misleading please read the equation in the body of the post.
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:18 history asked Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0