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added a few words to prevent confusion
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Willie Wong
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For $x=e=\sum 1/{{i}!}$, the sequence $sin(n!\pi x)$ tends to zero since the sequence of fractional parts {$n!x$} tends to zero. Hence generally answer on your question is negative.

For $x=e=\sum 1/{{i}!}$ $sin(n!\pi x)$ tends to zero since the sequence of fractional parts {$n!x$} tends to zero. Hence generally answer on your question is negative.

For $x=e=\sum 1/{{i}!}$, the sequence $sin(n!\pi x)$ tends to zero since the sequence of fractional parts {$n!x$} tends to zero. Hence generally answer on your question is negative.

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Petya
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For $x=e=\sum 1/{{i}!}$ $sin(n!\pi x)$ tends to zero since the sequence of fractional parts {$n!x$} tends to zero. Hence generally answer on your question is negative.