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Oct 11, 2019 at 11:58 vote accept Adam
Oct 13, 2019 at 18:09
Oct 11, 2019 at 11:07 comment added Pietro Majer This is elementary. Recall $f:(a,b)\to\mathbb{R}$ is convex iff the incremental ratio ${f(y)-f(x)\over y-x}$ is increasing in both variables. As a consequence, at any point $x$, $f$ has both right derivative, $f_+'(x)=\inf_{y>x}{f(y)-f(x)\over y-x}$ and left derivative $f_-'(x)=\sup_{z<x}{f(z)-f(x)\over z-x}$, and for all $x<y$ in $(a,b)$ $$f_-'(x)\le f_+'(x) \le {f(y)-f(x)\over y-x} \le f_-'(y)\le f_+'(y).$$
Oct 11, 2019 at 10:12 comment added Adam Why for $0<x<y$ we have $f^{'}(x)\leq \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}\leq f^{'}(y)?$
Oct 11, 2019 at 7:15 comment added Pietro Majer Yes, what exactly is not clear?
Oct 10, 2019 at 21:20 comment added Adam Did you show that it is decreasing? Could you please explain it a bit more?
Oct 10, 2019 at 19:25 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 4.0